|
Registration Statement Under the Securities Act of 1933 |
☐ |
|
Pre-Effective Amendment No. __ |
☐ |
|
Post-Effective Amendment No. 100 |
☒ |
|
and | |
|
Registration Statement Under the Investment Company Act of 1940 |
☐ |
|
Amendment No. 102 |
☒ |
|
☐ |
immediately upon filing pursuant to paragraph (b) |
|
☒ |
on March 2, 2026 pursuant to paragraph (b) |
|
☐ |
60 days after filing pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) |
|
☐ |
on (date) pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) |
|
☐ |
75 days after filing pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) |
|
☐ |
on (date) pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of Rule 485. |
|
☐ |
this post-effective amendment designates a new effective date for a previously filed post-effective
amendment. |
|
First Trust Series Fund |
|
FIRST TRUST PREFERRED SECURITIES
AND INCOME FUND |
TICKER SYMBOL |
|
CLASS A |
FPEAX |
|
CLASS C |
FPECX |
|
CLASS F |
FPEFX |
|
CLASS I |
FPEIX |
|
CLASS R3 |
FPERX |
|
|
Class A |
Class C |
Class F |
Class I |
Class R3 |
|
Maximum Sales Charge (Load) Imposed on Purchases
(as a percentage of offering price) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Maximum Deferred Sales Charge (Load) (as a
percentage of the lesser of purchase price or
redemption proceeds)(1)
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Maximum Sales Charge (Load) Imposed on Reinvested
Dividends |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Exchange Fee |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A |
Class C |
Class F |
Class I |
Class R3 |
|
Management Fees |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Distribution and Service (12b-1) Fees |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Other Expenses |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses(2) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Fee Waiver and Expense Reimbursement(3) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses After Fee
Waivers and Expense Reimbursements |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Share Class |
A |
C |
F |
I |
R3 |
|
1 Year |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
|
3 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
5 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
10 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Share Class |
A |
C |
F |
I |
R3 |
|
1 Year |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
|
3 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
5 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
10 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
1 Year |
5 Years |
10 Years |
Since
Inception |
Inception
Date |
|
Class C – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class F – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class I – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class R3 – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A – Return After Taxes on Distributions |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A – Return After Taxes on Distributions and
Sale of Shares |
|
|
|
|
|
|
ICE BofA US Investment Grade Institutional Capital
Securities Index(1) (reflects no deduction for fees,
expenses or taxes) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
FPEIX Blended Index(1),(2),(3) (reflects no deduction
for fees, expenses or taxes) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Bloomberg US Aggregate Bond Index(1) (reflects no
deduction for fees, expenses or taxes) |
|
- |
|
|
|
|
Amount of Purchase |
Sales Charge
as %
of Public
Offering Price |
Sales Charge
as %
of Net Amount
Invested |
Maximum
Financial Intermediary
Commission as % of
Public Offering Price |
|
Less than $50,000 |
4.50% |
4.71% |
4.00% |
|
$50,000 but less than $100,000 |
4.25% |
4.43% |
3.75% |
|
$100,000 but less than $250,000 |
3.50% |
3.62% |
3.00% |
|
$250,000 but less than $500,000 |
2.75% |
2.82% |
2.50% |
|
$500,000 but less than $1,000,000 |
2.25% |
2.30% |
2.00% |
|
$1,000,000 and over* |
— |
— |
1.00% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class A Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$19.82 |
$17.39 |
$18.47 |
$22.58 |
$21.31 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
1.04 |
1.01 |
1.01 |
0.95 |
0.95 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.59 |
2.48 |
(1.08
) |
(4.12
) |
1.34 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.63 |
3.49 |
(0.07
) |
(3.17
) |
2.29 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(1.06
) |
(0.99
) |
(1.01
) |
(0.94
) |
(0.92
) |
|
Return of capital |
— |
(0.07
) |
— |
(0.00
)(b) |
(0.10
) |
|
Total distributions |
(1.06
) |
(1.06
) |
(1.01
) |
(0.94
) |
(1.02
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$20.39 |
$19.82 |
$17.39 |
$18.47 |
$22.58 |
|
Total Return(c) |
8.54
% |
20.44
% |
(0.51
)% |
(14.36
)% |
10.89
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$39,824 |
$42,342 |
$44,662 |
$44,713 |
$56,365 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
1.43
%(d) |
1.42
%(d) |
1.38
%(d) |
1.30
% |
1.33
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
1.41
%(d) |
1.41
%(d) |
1.38
%(d) |
1.30
% |
1.33
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
5.28
% |
5.28
% |
5.55
% |
4.61
% |
4.22
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
48
% |
43
% |
38
% |
30
% |
38
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class C Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$19.99 |
$17.53 |
$18.60 |
$22.72 |
$21.43 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
0.90 |
0.87 |
0.90 |
0.81 |
0.79 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.58 |
2.51 |
(1.10
) |
(4.15
) |
1.35 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.48 |
3.38 |
(0.20
) |
(3.34
) |
2.14 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(0.91
) |
(0.86
) |
(0.87
) |
(0.78
) |
(0.77
) |
|
Return of capital |
— |
(0.06
) |
— |
(0.00
)(b) |
(0.08
) |
|
Total distributions |
(0.91
) |
(0.92
) |
(0.87
) |
(0.78
) |
(0.85
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$20.56 |
$19.99 |
$17.53 |
$18.60 |
$22.72 |
|
Total Return(c) |
7.66
% |
19.57
% |
(1.20
)% |
(14.97
)% |
10.11
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$19,356 |
$23,928 |
$25,016 |
$36,112 |
$51,756 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
2.16
%(d) |
2.16
%(d) |
2.11
%(d) |
2.02
% |
2.04
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
2.16
%(d) |
2.16
%(d) |
2.11
%(d) |
2.02
% |
2.04
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
4.53
% |
4.53
% |
4.84
% |
3.89
% |
3.51
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
48
% |
43
% |
38
% |
30
% |
38
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class F Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$20.11 |
$17.62 |
$18.71 |
$22.87 |
$21.59 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
1.09 |
1.03 |
0.97 |
0.96 |
0.97 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.57 |
2.54 |
(1.03
) |
(4.16
) |
1.36 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.66 |
3.57 |
(0.06
) |
(3.20
) |
2.33 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(1.08
) |
(1.01
) |
(1.03
) |
(0.96
) |
(0.95
) |
|
Return of capital |
— |
(0.07
) |
— |
(0.00
)(b) |
(0.10
) |
|
Total distributions |
(1.08
) |
(1.08
) |
(1.03
) |
(0.96
) |
(1.05
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$20.69 |
$20.11 |
$17.62 |
$18.71 |
$22.87 |
|
Total Return(c) |
8.57
% |
20.63
% |
(0.41
)% |
(14.36
)% |
10.91
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$4,525 |
$20,848 |
$783 |
$688 |
$969 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
1.44
%(d) |
1.41
%(d) |
2.35
%(d) |
3.73
% |
3.17
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
1.31
%(d) |
1.31
%(d) |
1.31
%(d) |
1.30
% |
1.30
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
5.39
% |
5.28
% |
5.27
% |
4.61
% |
4.25
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
48
% |
43
% |
38
% |
30
% |
38
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class I Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$20.02 |
$17.53 |
$18.60 |
$22.72 |
$21.43 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
1.12 |
1.08 |
1.08 |
1.02 |
1.02 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.58 |
2.52 |
(1.09
) |
(4.15
) |
1.35 |
|
Total from investment operations. |
1.70 |
3.60 |
(0.01
) |
(3.13
) |
2.37 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(1.11
) |
(1.04
) |
(1.06
) |
(0.98
) |
(0.97
) |
|
Return of capital |
— |
(0.07
) |
— |
(0.01
) |
(0.11
) |
|
Total distributions |
(1.11
) |
(1.11
) |
(1.06
) |
(0.99
) |
(1.08
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$20.61 |
$20.02 |
$17.53 |
$18.60 |
$22.72 |
|
Total Return(b) |
8.82
% |
20.92
% |
(0.20
)% |
(14.09
)% |
11.21
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$151,413 |
$146,181 |
$126,528 |
$150,234 |
$216,022 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
1.07
%(c) |
1.06
%(c) |
1.09
%(c) |
1.00
% |
1.03
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
1.07
%(c) |
1.06
%(c) |
1.09
%(c) |
1.00
% |
1.03
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
5.62
% |
5.62
% |
5.85
% |
4.90
% |
4.51
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
48
% |
43
% |
38
% |
30
% |
38
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class R3 Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$19.73 |
$17.31 |
$18.40 |
$22.51 |
$21.26 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
0.99 |
0.96 |
0.96 |
0.88 |
0.87 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.57 |
2.48 |
(1.09
) |
(4.10
) |
1.35 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.56 |
3.44 |
(0.13
) |
(3.22
) |
2.22 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(1.01
) |
(0.96
) |
(0.96
) |
(0.89
) |
(0.88
) |
|
Return of capital |
— |
(0.06
) |
— |
(0.00
)(b) |
(0.09
) |
|
Total distributions |
(1.01
) |
(1.02
) |
(0.96
) |
(0.89
) |
(0.97
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$20.28 |
$19.73 |
$17.31 |
$18.40 |
$22.51 |
|
Total Return(c) |
8.20
% |
20.19
% |
(0.76
)% |
(14.67
)% |
10.56
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$767 |
$721 |
$605 |
$690 |
$738 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
5.11
%(d) |
5.15
%(d) |
4.47
%(d) |
4.53
% |
4.45
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
1.66
%(d) |
1.66
%(d) |
1.66
%(d) |
1.65
% |
1.65
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
5.02
% |
5.02
% |
5.27
% |
4.29
% |
3.90
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
48
% |
43
% |
38
% |
30
% |
38
% |
|
First Trust Series Fund |
|
FIRST TRUST SHORT DURATION
HIGH INCOME FUND |
TICKER SYMBOL |
|
CLASS A |
FDHAX |
|
CLASS C |
FDHCX |
|
CLASS I |
FDHIX |
|
|
Class A |
Class C |
Class I |
|
Maximum Sales Charge (Load) Imposed on Purchases (as a percentage of offering
price) |
|
|
|
|
Maximum Deferred Sales Charge (Load) (as a percentage of the lesser of purchase
price or redemption proceeds)(1)
|
|
|
|
|
Maximum Sales Charge (Load) Imposed on Reinvested Dividends |
|
|
|
|
Exchange Fee |
|
|
|
|
|
Class A |
Class C |
Class I |
|
Management Fees |
|
|
|
|
Distribution and Service (12b-1) Fees |
|
|
|
|
Other Expenses |
|
|
|
|
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses(2) |
|
|
|
|
Fee Waiver and Expense Reimbursement(3) |
|
|
|
|
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses After Fee Waivers and Expense
Reimbursements |
|
|
|
|
Share Class |
A |
C |
I |
|
1 Year |
$ |
$ |
$ |
|
3 Years |
|
|
|
|
5 Years |
|
|
|
|
10 Years |
|
|
|
|
Share Class |
A |
C |
I |
|
1 Year |
$ |
$ |
$ |
|
3 Years |
|
|
|
|
5 Years |
|
|
|
|
10 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
1 Year |
5 Years |
10 Years |
Since
Inception |
Inception
Date |
|
Class C – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class I – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A – Return After Taxes on Distributions |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Class A – Return After Taxes on Distributions and
Sale of Shares |
|
|
|
|
|
|
FDHAX Blended Index(1),(2) (reflects no deduction for
fees, expenses or taxes) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
ICE BofA US High Yield Constrained Index(2) (reflects
no deduction for fees, expenses or taxes) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Morningstar® LSTA® US Leveraged Loan Index(2)
(reflects no deduction for fees, expenses or taxes) |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Bloomberg U.S. Aggregate Bond Index(2) (reflects no
deduction for fees, expenses or taxes) |
|
- |
|
|
|
|
Amount of Purchase |
Sales Charge
as %
of Public
Offering Price |
Sales Charge
as %
of Net Amount
Invested |
Maximum
Financial Intermediary
Commission as % of
Public Offering Price |
|
Less than $50,000 |
3.50% |
3.62% |
3.00% |
|
$50,000 but less than $100,000 |
3.25% |
3.35% |
2.75% |
|
$100,000 but less than $250,000 |
2.50% |
2.56% |
2.00% |
|
$250,000 and over* |
— |
— |
1.00% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class A Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$18.03 |
$17.69 |
$17.70 |
$19.57 |
$18.91 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
1.10 |
1.25 |
1.15 |
0.80 |
0.67 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.11 |
0.52 |
0.08 |
(1.91
) |
0.62 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.21 |
1.77 |
1.23 |
(1.11
) |
1.29 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(1.11
) |
(1.41
) |
(1.24
) |
(0.76
) |
(0.63
) |
|
Return of capital |
(0.03
) |
(0.02
) |
— |
— |
— |
|
Total distributions |
(1.14
) |
(1.43
) |
(1.24
) |
(0.76
) |
(0.63
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$18.10 |
$18.03 |
$17.69 |
$17.70 |
$19.57 |
|
Total Return(b) |
6.97
% |
10.31
% |
7.08
% |
(5.78
)% |
6.83
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$10,436 |
$11,960 |
$14,143 |
$15,996 |
$17,823 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
1.61
%(c) |
1.54
% |
1.40
% |
1.27
% |
1.21
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
1.26
%(c) |
1.25
% |
1.26
%(d) |
1.26
%(d) |
1.21
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
6.09
% |
6.91
% |
6.45
% |
4.30
% |
3.40
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
84
% |
64
% |
51
% |
54
% |
90
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class C Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$18.01 |
$17.68 |
$17.69 |
$19.56 |
$18.90 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
0.96 |
1.11 |
1.00 |
0.65 |
0.52 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.12 |
0.52 |
0.09 |
(1.90
) |
0.62 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.08 |
1.63 |
1.09 |
(1.25
) |
1.14 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(0.98
) |
(1.28
) |
(1.10
) |
(0.62
) |
(0.48
) |
|
Return of capital |
(0.02
) |
(0.02
) |
— |
— |
— |
|
Total distributions |
(1.00
) |
(1.30
) |
(1.10
) |
(0.62
) |
(0.48
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$18.09 |
$18.01 |
$17.68 |
$17.69 |
$19.56 |
|
Total Return(b) |
6.18
% |
9.45
% |
6.29
% |
(6.49
)% |
6.04
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$9,640 |
$10,197 |
$10,628 |
$10,962 |
$16,375 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
2.38
% |
2.33
% |
2.20
% |
2.02
% |
1.96
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
2.01
%(c) |
2.00
% |
2.06
%(d) |
2.01
%(d) |
1.96
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
5.34
% |
6.16
% |
5.61
% |
3.49
% |
2.65
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
84
% |
64
% |
51
% |
54
% |
90
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
Class I Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$18.03 |
$17.69 |
$17.71 |
$19.59 |
$18.93 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(a) |
1.14 |
1.30 |
1.18 |
0.84 |
0.72 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.12 |
0.52 |
0.09 |
(1.92
) |
0.61 |
|
Total from investment operations |
1.26 |
1.82 |
1.27 |
(1.08
) |
1.33 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(1.15
) |
(1.46
) |
(1.29
) |
(0.80
) |
(0.67
) |
|
Return of capital |
(0.03
) |
(0.02
) |
— |
— |
— |
|
Total distributions |
(1.18
) |
(1.48
) |
(1.29
) |
(0.80
) |
(0.67
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$18.11 |
$18.03 |
$17.69 |
$17.71 |
$19.59 |
|
Total Return(b) |
7.24
% |
10.58
% |
7.32
% |
(5.58
)% |
7.09
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$51,896 |
$51,734 |
$65,592 |
$111,415 |
$135,604 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
1.18
%(c) |
1.10
% |
1.19
% |
1.02
% |
0.96
% |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
1.01
%(c) |
1.00
% |
1.05
%(d) |
1.01
%(d) |
0.96
% |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
6.34
% |
7.18
% |
6.57
% |
4.52
% |
3.65
% |
|
Portfolio turnover rate. |
84
% |
64
% |
51
% |
54
% |
90
% |
|
First Trust Series Fund |
|
FIRST TRUST MANAGED MUNICIPAL FUND |
TICKER SYMBOL |
|
CLASS A |
CWAAX |
|
CLASS I |
CWAIX |
|
|
Class A |
Class I |
|
Maximum Sales Charge (Load) Imposed on Purchases (as a percentage of offering price) |
|
|
|
Maximum Deferred Sales Charge (Load) (as a percentage of the lesser of purchase price or
redemption proceeds)(1)
|
|
|
|
Maximum Sales Charge (Load) Imposed on Reinvested Dividends |
|
|
|
Exchange Fee |
|
|
|
|
Class A |
Class I |
|
Management Fees |
|
|
|
Distribution and Service (12b-1) Fees |
|
|
|
Other Expenses |
|
|
|
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses(2) |
|
|
|
Fee Waiver and Expense Reimbursement(3) |
|
|
|
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses After Fee Waivers and Expense Reimbursements |
|
|
|
Share Class |
A |
I |
|
1 Year |
$ |
$ |
|
3 Years |
|
|
|
5 Years |
|
|
|
10 Years |
|
|
|
Share Class |
A |
I |
|
1 Year |
$ |
$ |
|
3 Years |
|
|
|
5 Years |
|
|
|
10 Years |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
1 Year |
Since
Inception |
Inception
Date |
|
Class A – Return Before Taxes(1) |
|
|
|
|
Class I – Return Before Taxes |
|
|
|
|
Class I – Return After Taxes on Distributions |
|
|
|
|
Class I – Return After Taxes on Distributions and Sale of Shares |
|
|
|
|
Bloomberg Municipal Bond 5-15 Year Index(2) (reflects no deduction for fees,
expenses or taxes) |
|
|
|
|
Bloomberg Municipal Bond Index(2) (reflects no deduction for fees, expenses or
taxes) |
|
|
|
|
Amount of Purchase |
Sales Charge
as %
of Public
Offering Price |
Sales Charge
as %
of Net Amount
Invested |
Maximum
Financial Intermediary
Commission as % of
Public Offering Price |
|
Less than $50,000 |
3.50% |
3.62% |
3.00% |
|
$50,000 but less than $100,000 |
3.25% |
3.35% |
2.75% |
|
$100,000 but less than $250,000 |
2.50% |
2.56% |
2.00% |
|
$250,000 and over* |
— |
— |
1.00% |
|
|
|
Period Ended
October 31, |
|
Class A Shares |
2025(a) | |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
|
$20.53 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(b) |
|
0.45 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
|
(0.13
) |
|
Total from investment operations |
|
0.32 |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
Net investment income |
|
(0.38
) |
|
Return of capital |
|
(0.02
) |
|
Total distributions |
|
(0.40
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
|
$20.45 |
|
Total Return(c) |
|
1.64
% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
|
$508 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
|
6.57
%(d)(e) |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
|
0.91
%(d)(e) |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
|
3.35
%(d) |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
|
33
% |
|
|
Year Ended October 31, |
|
Period Ended
October 31, | ||
|
Class I Shares |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2022(a) | |
|
Net asset value, beginning of period |
$20.45 |
$19.20 |
$19.33 |
|
$20.00 |
|
Income from investment operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income (loss)(b) |
0.72 |
0.72 |
0.68 |
|
0.21 |
|
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
(0.03
) |
1.26 |
(0.13
) |
|
(0.78
) |
|
Total from investment operations |
0.69 |
1.98 |
0.55 |
|
(0.57
) |
|
Distributions paid to shareholders from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net investment income |
(0.71
) |
(0.73
) |
(0.68
) |
|
(0.10
) |
|
Return of capital. |
(0.03
) |
— |
— |
|
— |
|
Total distributions |
(0.74
) |
(0.73
) |
(0.68
) |
|
(0.10
) |
|
Net asset value, end of period |
$20.40 |
$20.45 |
$19.20 |
|
$19.33 |
|
Total Return(c) |
3.50
% |
10.38
% |
2.76
% |
|
(2.84
)% |
|
Ratios to average net assets/supplemental data: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
Net assets, end of period (in 000’s) |
$61,396 |
$75,310 |
$72,156 |
|
$47,469 |
|
Ratio of total expenses to average net assets |
0.91
%(d) |
0.85
% |
0.83
% |
|
1.41
%(e) |
|
Ratio of net expenses to average net assets |
0.66
%(d) |
0.56
% |
0.50
% |
|
0.50
%(e) |
|
Ratio of net investment income (loss) to average net assets |
3.59
% |
3.54
% |
3.40
% |
|
2.76
%(e) |
|
Portfolio turnover rate |
33
% |
28
% |
57
% |
|
10
% |
|
FIRST TRUST PREFERRED SECURITIES AND INCOME FUND |
TICKER SYMBOL |
|
Class A |
FPEAX |
|
Class C |
FPECX |
|
Class F |
FPEFX |
|
Class I |
FPEIX |
|
Class R3 |
FPERX |
|
Portfolio Turnover Rate
| |
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | |
|
2025 |
2024 |
|
48% |
43% |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position
and Offices
with Trust |
Term of
Office and
Year First
Elected or
Appointed |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
Number of
Portfolios
in the First
Trust Fund
Complex
Overseen
by Trustee |
Other
Trusteeships or
Directorships
Held by
Trustee
During the
Past 5 Years |
|
TRUSTEE WHO IS AN INTERESTED PERSON OF THE TRUST | |||||
|
James A. Bowen (1)
1955 |
Chairman of the
Board and Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Chief Executive Officer, First Trust
Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios
L.P.; Chairman of the Board of Directors,
BondWave LLC (Software Development
Company) and Stonebridge Advisors LLC
(Investment Advisor) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
INDEPENDENT TRUSTEES | |||||
|
Thomas J. Driscoll
1961 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2025 |
Retired; Partner, Deloitte LLP and
Deloitte Tax LLP (1998 to January 2024) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Richard E. Erickson
1951 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Retired; Physician, Edward-Elmhurst
Medical Group (2021 to September
2023); Physician and Officer, Wheaton
Orthopedics (1990 to 2021) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec
1957 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Retired; President, ADM Investor
Services, Inc. (Futures Commission
Merchant) (2010 to July 2022) |
323 Portfolios |
Director, National
Futures
Association;
formerly, Director
of ADM Investor
Services, Inc.,
ADM Investor
Services
International,
ADMIS Hong Kong
Ltd., ADMIS
Singapore Ltd. and
Futures Industry
Association |
|
Denise M. Keefe
1964 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2021 |
Senior Vice President, Advocate Health,
Continuing Health Division (Integrated
Healthcare System) (2023 to present);
Executive Vice President, Advocate
Aurora Health (Integrated Healthcare
System) (2018 to 2023) |
323 Portfolios |
Director and Board
Chair of Advocate
Home Health
Services, Advocate
Home Care
Products and
Advocate Hospice;
Director and Board
Chair of Aurora At
Home (since
2018); Director of
Advocate
Physician Partners
Accountable Care
Organization;
Director of RML
Long Term Acute
Care Hospitals;
Director of Senior
Helpers (2021 to
2024); and
Director of
MobileHelp (2022
to 2024) |
|
Robert F. Keith
1956 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
President, Hibs Enterprises (Financial and
Management Consulting) |
323 Portfolios |
Formerly, Director
of Trust Company
of Illinois |
|
Niel B. Nielson
1954 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Senior Advisor (2018 to present),
Managing Director and Chief Operating
Officer (2015 to 2018), Pelita Harapan
Educational Foundation (Educational
Products and Services) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position
and Offices
with Trust |
Term of
Office and
Year First
Elected or
Appointed |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
Number of
Portfolios
in the First
Trust Fund
Complex
Overseen
by Trustee |
Other
Trusteeships or
Directorships
Held by
Trustee
During the
Past 5 Years |
|
INDEPENDENT TRUSTEES | |||||
|
Bronwyn Wright
1971 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2023 |
Independent Director to a number of Irish
collective investment funds (2009 to
present); Various roles at international
affiliates of Citibank (1994 to 2009),
including Managing Director, Citibank
Europe plc and Head of Securities and
Fund Services, Citi Ireland (2007 to
2009) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position and
Offices with Trust |
Term of Office and
Length of Service |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
|
OFFICERS OF THE TRUST | |||
|
James M. Dykas
1966 |
President and Chief
Executive Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2016 |
Managing Director and Chief Financial Officer, First
Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P.;
Chief Financial Officer, BondWave LLC (Software
Development Company) and Stonebridge Advisors
LLC (Investment Advisor) |
|
W. Scott Jardine
1960 |
Secretary and Chief Legal
Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
General Counsel, First Trust Advisors L.P. and First
Trust Portfolios L.P.; Secretary and General Counsel,
BondWave LLC; and Secretary, Stonebridge Advisors
LLC |
|
Daniel J. Lindquist
1970 |
Vice President |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Managing Director, First Trust Advisors L.P. and First
Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Kristi A. Maher
1966 |
Chief Compliance Officer
and Assistant Secretary |
●Indefinite term
●Chief Compliance
Officer since January
2011
●Assistant Secretary
since inception |
International General Counsel, First Trust Advisors
L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P., February 2025 –
present. Previously, Deputy General Counsel, First
Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Derek D. Maltbie
1972 |
Treasurer, Chief Financial
Officer and Chief
Accounting Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2023 |
Senior Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P., July 2021 – present.
Previously, Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P.
and First Trust Portfolios L.P., 2014 –2021. |
|
Roger F. Testin
1966 |
Vice President |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Senior Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Name of Trustee |
Total Compensation from
the Fund (1)
|
Total Compensation from
the First Trust Fund Complex (2)
|
|
Thomas J. Driscoll(3) |
$728 |
$324,786 |
|
Richard E. Erickson |
$2,977 |
$669,132 |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec |
$2,995 |
$688,432 |
|
Denise M. Keefe |
$2,964 |
$657,315 |
|
Robert F. Keith |
$2,981 |
$676,054 |
|
Niel B. Nielson |
$2,969 |
$660,482 |
|
Bronwyn Wright |
$3,026 |
$644,703 |
|
Trustee |
Dollar Range of Equity
Securities in the Fund
(Number of Shares
Held) |
Aggregate Dollar
Range of Equity
Securities in All
Registered Investment
Companies Overseen
by Trustee in the First
Trust Fund Complex |
|
Interested Trustee | ||
|
James A. Bowen |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Independent Trustees | ||
|
Thomas J. Driscoll |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Richard E. Erickson |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Denise M. Keefe |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Robert F. Keith |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Niel B. Nielson |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Bronwyn Wright |
None |
None |
|
Amount of Management Fees
(Net of Fee Waivers and Expense Reimbursements by
First Trust)
|
Amount of Fees Waived
and Expenses Reimbursed By First Trust
| ||||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, |
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$1,671,151 |
$1,732,894 |
$1,734,857 |
$41,416 |
$40,013 |
$36,989 |
|
Portfolio Managers |
Registered
Investment
Companies
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Millions) |
Other
Pooled
Investment
Vehicles
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Millions) |
Other
Accounts
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Millions) |
Registered
Investment
Companies
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Millions) |
Other
Pooled
Investment
Vehicles
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Millions) |
Other
Accounts
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Millions) |
|
Robert Wolf |
3 ($9,954) |
N/A |
3,819 ($1,620) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Eric Weaver |
3 ($9,954) |
N/A |
3,819 ($1,620) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Angelo Graci |
3 ($9,954) |
N/A |
3,819 ($1,620) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Amount of Sub-Advisory Fees
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$835,576 |
$849,659 |
$884,203 |
|
Aggregate Amount of Brokerage Commissions
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$3,439 |
$1,503 |
$4,217 |
|
Aggregate Amount Paid to Administrator
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$86,331 |
$88,232 |
$15,635 |
|
Underwriting Commissions
Retained by Distributor
|
Compensation on Redemptions
and Repurchases
| ||||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, |
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$13,776 |
$9,788 |
$13,509 |
$145 |
$11 |
$1,946 |
|
Net Asset Value per Share |
$20.39 |
|
Per Share Sales Charge—4.50% of public offering price |
0.96 |
|
Per Share Offering Price to the Public |
$21.35 |
|
12b-1 Fees Incurred by the Fund
| |
|
Class |
Fiscal Year Ended
October 31,
2025 |
|
Class A |
$97,162 |
|
Class C |
$217,813 |
|
Class F |
$12,907 |
|
Class I |
N/A |
|
Class R3 |
$3,558 |
|
Total
Non-Expiring
Capital Loss
Available |
|
$27,030,945 |
|
NAME OF BENEFICIAL OWNER |
% OF
OUTSTANDING
SHARES OWNED |
|
FIRST TRUST PREFERRED SECURITIES AND INCOME FUND | |
|
CLASS A | |
|
Morgan Stanley Smith Barney LLC |
40.69% |
|
Charles Schwab & Co., Inc. |
13.09% |
|
Pershing LLC |
12.70% |
|
Raymond James & Associates, Inc. |
12.66% |
|
LPL Financial LLC |
9.74% |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
6.03% |
|
CLASS C | |
|
Oppenheimer & Co., Inc. |
29.57% |
|
Morgan Stanley Smith Barney LLC |
24.31% |
|
UBS Financial Services Inc. |
21.27% |
|
LPL Financial LLC |
7.53% |
|
Raymond James & Associates, Inc. |
5.01% |
|
CLASS F | |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
94.47% |
|
CLASS I | |
|
Morgan Stanley Smith Barney LLC |
42.34% |
|
UBS Financial Services Inc. |
24.61% |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
8.00% |
|
Charles Schwab & Co., Inc. |
5.96% |
|
Pershing LLC |
5.51% |
|
CLASS R3 | |
|
MSCS Financial Services LLC |
48.62% |
|
First Trust Portfolios, L.P. |
32.95% |
|
UBS Financial Services Inc. |
13.82% |
|
AAA |
An obligation rated “AAA” has the highest rating assigned by S&P. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation is extremely strong. |
|
AA |
An obligation rated “AA” differs from the highest-rated obligations only to a small degree. The obligor’s
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is very strong. |
|
A |
An obligation rated “A” is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and
economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its
financial commitments on the obligation is still strong. |
|
BBB |
An obligation rated “BBB” exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions
or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments
on the obligation. |
|
BB |
An obligation rated “BB” is less vulnerable to nonpayment than other speculative issues. However, it faces
major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could
lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
|
B |
An obligation rated “B” is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated “BB,” but the obligor
currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. Adverse business, financial, or
economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitments
on the obligation. |
|
CCC |
An obligation rated “CCC” is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business,
financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. In the
event of adverse business, financial, or economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the capacity to
meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
|
CC |
An obligation rated “CC” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment. The “CC” rating is used when a default
has not yet occurred but S&P expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to
default. |
|
C |
An obligation rated “C” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation is expected to have
lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared with obligations that are rated higher. |
|
D |
An obligation rated “D” is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments,
the “D” rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P
believes that such payments will be made within the next five business days in the absence of a stated grace
period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or the next 30 calendar days. The “D” rating also will be
used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation
is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to 'D' if
it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring. |
|
A-1 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-1' is rated in the highest category by S&P Global Ratings. The obligor's
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is strong. Within this category, certain
obligations are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor's capacity to meet its financial
commitments on these obligations is extremely strong. |
|
A-2 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-2' is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in
circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating categories. However, the obligor's
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is satisfactory. |
|
A-3 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-3' exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic
conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken an obligor's capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation. |
|
B |
A short-term obligation rated 'B' is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The
obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing
uncertainties that could lead to the obligor's inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments. |
|
C |
A short-term obligation rated 'C' is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable
business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the
obligation. |
|
D |
A short-term obligation rated 'D' is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital
instruments, the 'D' rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due,
unless S&P Global Ratings believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period. However,
any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. The 'D' rating also
will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where default on an
obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is
lowered to 'D' if it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring. |
|
SP-1 |
Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay
debt service is given a plus (+) designation. |
|
SP-2 |
Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse financial and economic
changes over the term of the notes. |
|
SP-3 |
Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest. |
|
D |
'D' is assigned upon failure to pay the note when due, completion of a distressed debt restructuring, or the
filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual
certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. |
|
Aaa |
Obligations rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, subject to the lowest level of credit risk. |
|
Aa |
Obligations rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit risk. |
|
A |
Obligations rated A are judged to be upper-medium grade and are subject to low credit risk. |
|
Baa |
Obligations rated Baa are judged to be medium-grade and subject to moderate credit risk and as such may
possess certain speculative characteristics. |
|
Ba |
Obligations rated Ba are judged to be speculative and are subject to substantial credit risk. |
|
B |
Obligations rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk. |
|
Caa |
Obligations rated Caa are judged to be speculative of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk. |
|
Ca |
Obligations rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of
recovery of principal and interest. |
|
C |
Obligations rated C are the lowest rated and are typically in default, with little prospect for recovery of
principal or interest. |
|
P-1 |
Ratings of Prime-1 reflect a superior ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
P-2 |
Ratings of Prime-2 reflect a strong ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
P-3 |
Ratings of Prime-3 reflect an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
NP |
Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime rating categories. |
|
MIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows,
highly reliable liquidity support, or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing. |
|
MIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the
preceding group. |
|
MIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection may be narrow, and
market access for refinancing is likely to be less well-established. |
|
SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack
sufficient margins of protection. |
|
VMIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by the superior short-term
credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
VMIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Good protection is afforded by the strong short-term credit
strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
VMIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Adequate protection is afforded by the satisfactory
short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Demand features rated in this category may be
supported by a liquidity provider that does not have a sufficiently strong short-term rating or may lack the
structural or legal protections. |
|
AAA |
Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in
cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely
to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
|
AA |
Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong
capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable
events. |
|
A |
High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial
commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business
or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
|
BBB |
Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for
payment of financial commitments is considered adequate but adverse business or economic conditions are
more likely to impair this capacity. |
|
BB |
Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse
changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial flexibility exists that
supports the servicing of financial commitments. |
|
B |
Highly speculative. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety
remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is
vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment. |
|
CCC |
Substantial credit risk. Very low margin for safety. Default is a real possibility. |
|
CC |
Very high levels of credit risk. Default of some kind appears probable. |
|
C |
Near default. A default or default-like process has begun, or for a closed funding vehicle, payment capacity is
irrevocably impaired. Conditions that are indicative of a ‘C’ category rating for an issuer include:
●the issuer has entered into a grace or cure period following non-payment of a material financial obligation;
●The formal announcement by the issuer or their agent of a distressed debt exchange; and
●A closed financing vehicle where payment capacity is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to
pay interest and/or principal in full during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default is
imminent. |
|
RD |
Restricted default. ‘RD’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has experienced:
●an uncured payment default or distressed debt exchange on a bond, loan or other material financial
obligation, but
●has not entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up
procedure, and
●has not otherwise ceased operating. This would include:
- the selective payment default on a specific class or currency of debt;
- the uncured expiry of any applicable original grace period, cure period or default forbearance period
following a payment default on a bank loan, capital markets security or other material financial
obligation. |
|
D |
Default. ‘D’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has entered into bankruptcy filings,
administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up procedure or that has otherwise ceased
business and debt is still outstanding. |
|
F1 |
Highest short-term credit quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial
commitments; may have an added ‘+’ to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature. |
|
F2 |
Good short-term credit quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments. |
|
F3 |
Fair short-term credit quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate. |
|
B |
Speculative short-term credit quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus
heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions. |
|
C |
High short-term default risk. Default is a real possibility. |
|
RD |
Restricted default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments,
although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Typically applicable to entity ratings only. |
|
D |
Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a short-term obligation. |
|
AAA |
Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of credit risk. They are assigned only in
cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely
to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
|
AA |
Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low credit risk. They indicate very strong
capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable
events. |
|
A |
High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low credit risk. The capacity for payment of financial
commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business
or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
|
BBB |
Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of credit risk are currently low. The capacity for
payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are
more likely to impair this capacity. |
|
BB |
Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to credit risk, particularly in the event of adverse
changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial alternatives may be
available to allow financial commitments to be met. |
|
B |
Highly speculative. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material credit risk is present. |
|
CCC |
Substantial credit risk. ‘CCC’ ratings indicate that substantial credit risk is present. |
|
CC |
Very high levels of credit risk. ‘CC’ ratings indicate very high levels of credit risk. |
|
C |
Exceptionally high levels of credit risk. ‘C’ indicates exceptionally high levels of credit risk. |
|
AAA |
Determined to have almost no risk of loss due to credit-related events. Assigned only to the very highest
quality obligors and obligations able to survive extremely challenging economic events. |
|
AA |
Determined to have minimal risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such obligors and obligations are
deemed very high quality. |
|
A |
Determined to be of high quality with a small risk of loss due to credit-related events. Issuers and obligations
in this category are expected to weather difficult times with low credit losses. |
|
BBB |
Determined to be of medium quality with some risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such issuers and
obligations may experience credit losses during stressed environments. |
|
BB |
Determined to be of low quality with moderate risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such issuers and
obligations have fundamental weaknesses that create moderate credit risk. |
|
B |
Determined to be of very low quality with high risk of loss due to credit-related events. These issuers and
obligations contain many fundamental shortcomings that create significant credit risk. |
|
CCC |
Determined to be at substantial risk of loss due to credit-related events, near default, or in default with high
recovery expectations. |
|
CC |
Determined to be near default or in default with average recovery expectations. |
|
C |
Determined to be near default or in default with low recovery expectations. |
|
D |
KBRA defines default as occurring if:
●There is a missed interest payment, principal payment, or preferred dividend payment, as applicable, on a
rated obligation which is unlikely to be recovered.
●The rated entity files for protection from creditors, is placed into receivership, or is closed by regulators
such that a missed payment is likely to result.
●The rated entity seeks and completes a distressed exchange, where existing rated obligations are replaced
by new obligations with a diminished economic value. |
|
K1+ |
Exceptional ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K1 |
Very strong ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K2 |
Strong ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K3 |
Adequate ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
B |
Questionable ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
C |
Little ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
D |
KBRA defines default as occurring if:
●There is a missed interest payment, principal payment, or preferred dividend payment, as applicable, on a
rated obligation which is unlikely to be recovered.
●The rated entity files for protection from creditors, is placed into receivership, or is closed by regulators
such that a missed payment is likely to result.
●The rated entity seeks and completes a distressed exchange, where existing rated obligations are replaced
by new obligations with a diminished economic value. |
|
FIRST TRUST SHORT DURATION HIGH INCOME FUND |
TICKER SYMBOL |
|
Class A |
FDHAX |
|
Class C |
FDHCX |
|
Class I |
FDHIX |
|
Portfolio Turnover Rate
| |
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | |
|
2025 |
2024 |
|
84% |
64% |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position
and Offices
with Trust |
Term of
Office and
Year First
Elected or
Appointed |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
Number of
Portfolios
in the First
Trust Fund
Complex
Overseen
by Trustee |
Other
Trusteeships or
Directorships
Held by
Trustee
During the
Past 5 Years |
|
TRUSTEE WHO IS AN INTERESTED PERSON OF THE TRUST | |||||
|
James A. Bowen (1)
1955 |
Chairman of the
Board and Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Chief Executive Officer, First Trust
Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios
L.P.; Chairman of the Board of Directors,
BondWave LLC (Software Development
Company) and Stonebridge Advisors LLC
(Investment Advisor) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
INDEPENDENT TRUSTEES | |||||
|
Thomas J. Driscoll
1961 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2025 |
Retired; Partner, Deloitte LLP and
Deloitte Tax LLP (1998 to January 2024) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Richard E. Erickson
1951 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Retired; Physician, Edward-Elmhurst
Medical Group (2021 to September
2023); Physician and Officer, Wheaton
Orthopedics (1990 to 2021) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec
1957 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Retired; President, ADM Investor
Services, Inc. (Futures Commission
Merchant) (2010 to July 2022) |
323 Portfolios |
Director, National
Futures
Association;
formerly, Director
of ADM Investor
Services, Inc.,
ADM Investor
Services
International,
ADMIS Hong Kong
Ltd., ADMIS
Singapore Ltd. and
Futures Industry
Association |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position
and Offices
with Trust |
Term of
Office and
Year First
Elected or
Appointed |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
Number of
Portfolios
in the First
Trust Fund
Complex
Overseen
by Trustee |
Other
Trusteeships or
Directorships
Held by
Trustee
During the
Past 5 Years |
|
INDEPENDENT TRUSTEES | |||||
|
Denise M. Keefe
1964 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2021 |
Senior Vice President, Advocate Health,
Continuing Health Division (Integrated
Healthcare System) (2023 to present);
Executive Vice President, Advocate
Aurora Health (Integrated Healthcare
System) (2018 to 2023) |
323 Portfolios |
Director and Board
Chair of Advocate
Home Health
Services, Advocate
Home Care
Products and
Advocate Hospice;
Director and Board
Chair of Aurora At
Home (since
2018); Director of
Advocate
Physician Partners
Accountable Care
Organization;
Director of RML
Long Term Acute
Care Hospitals;
Director of Senior
Helpers (2021 to
2024); and
Director of
MobileHelp (2022
to 2024) |
|
Robert F. Keith
1956 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
President, Hibs Enterprises (Financial and
Management Consulting) |
323 Portfolios |
Formerly, Director
of Trust Company
of Illinois |
|
Niel B. Nielson
1954 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Senior Advisor (2018 to present),
Managing Director and Chief Operating
Officer (2015 to 2018), Pelita Harapan
Educational Foundation (Educational
Products and Services) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Bronwyn Wright
1971 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2023 |
Independent Director to a number of Irish
collective investment funds (2009 to
present); Various roles at international
affiliates of Citibank (1994 to 2009),
including Managing Director, Citibank
Europe plc and Head of Securities and
Fund Services, Citi Ireland (2007 to
2009) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position and
Offices with Trust |
Term of Office and
Length of Service |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
|
OFFICERS OF THE TRUST | |||
|
James M. Dykas
1966 |
President and Chief
Executive Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2016 |
Managing Director and Chief Financial Officer, First
Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P.;
Chief Financial Officer, BondWave LLC (Software
Development Company) and Stonebridge Advisors
LLC (Investment Advisor) |
|
W. Scott Jardine
1960 |
Secretary and Chief Legal
Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
General Counsel, First Trust Advisors L.P. and First
Trust Portfolios L.P.; Secretary and General Counsel,
BondWave LLC; and Secretary, Stonebridge Advisors
LLC |
|
Daniel J. Lindquist
1970 |
Vice President |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Managing Director, First Trust Advisors L.P. and First
Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Kristi A. Maher
1966 |
Chief Compliance Officer
and Assistant Secretary |
●Indefinite term
●Chief Compliance
Officer since January
2011
●Assistant Secretary
since inception |
International General Counsel, First Trust Advisors
L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P., February 2025 –
present. Previously, Deputy General Counsel, First
Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position and
Offices with Trust |
Term of Office and
Length of Service |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
|
Derek D. Maltbie
1972 |
Treasurer, Chief Financial
Officer and Chief
Accounting Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2023 |
Senior Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P., July 2021 – present.
Previously, Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P.
and First Trust Portfolios L.P., 2014 –2021. |
|
Roger F. Testin
1966 |
Vice President |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Senior Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Name of Trustee |
Total Compensation from
the Fund (1)
|
Total Compensation from
the First Trust Fund Complex (2)
|
|
Thomas J. Driscoll(3) |
$728 |
$324,786 |
|
Richard E. Erickson |
$2,958 |
$669,132 |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec |
$2,964 |
$688,432 |
|
Denise M. Keefe |
$2,953 |
$657,315 |
|
Robert F. Keith |
$2,959 |
$676,054 |
|
Niel B. Nielson |
$2,955 |
$660,482 |
|
Bronwyn Wright |
$3,021 |
$644,703 |
|
Trustee |
Dollar Range of Equity
Securities in the Fund
(Number of Shares
Held) |
Aggregate Dollar
Range of Equity
Securities in All
Registered Investment
Companies Overseen
by Trustee in the First
Trust Fund Complex |
|
Interested Trustee | ||
|
James A. Bowen |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Independent Trustees | ||
|
Thomas J. Driscoll |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Richard E. Erickson |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Denise M. Keefe |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Robert F. Keith |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Niel B. Nielson |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Bronwyn Wright |
None |
None |
|
Amount of Management Fees
(Net of Fee Waivers and Expense Reimbursements by
First Trust)
|
Amount of Fees Waived
and Expenses Reimbursed By First Trust
| ||||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, |
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$301,950 |
$393,401 |
$562,066 |
$164,219 |
$130,620 |
$156,230 |
|
Name |
Position with
First Trust |
Length of
Service with
First Trust |
Principal Occupation During Past Five Years |
|
William Housey |
Managing Director of
Fixed Income and
Senior Portfolio Manager |
Since 2010 |
Managing Director of Fixed Income, Senior Vice President
and Senior Portfolio Manager, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Jeffrey Scott |
Senior Vice President
and Portfolio Manager |
Since 2010 |
Senior Vice President and Portfolio Manager,
(March 2020 to present), formerly Deputy Credit Officer
(2018-2020), First Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust
Portfolios L.P. |
|
Kevin Ziets |
Senior Vice President
and Portfolio Manager |
Since 2025 |
Senior Vice President and Portfolio Manager,
First Trust Advisors L.P. (2025 to present); Portfolio
Manager (2020-2025), formerly Senior Credit
Analyst (2017-2020), Muzinich & Company |
|
Portfolio Manager |
Registered
Investment
Companies
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Pooled
Investment
Vehicles
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Accounts
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Registered
Investment
Companies
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Pooled
Investment
Vehicles
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Accounts
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
|
William Housey |
9 ($7,171,824) |
1 ($0) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Jeffrey Scott |
6 ($7,162,023) |
1 ($0) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Kevin Ziets |
6 ($7,162,023) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Aggregate Amount of Brokerage Commissions
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$0 |
$0 |
$0 |
|
Aggregate Amount Paid to Administrator
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$61,187 |
$59,847 |
$74,701 |
|
Underwriting Commissions
Retained by Distributor
|
Compensation on Redemptions
and Repurchases
| ||||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, |
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$717 |
$2,390 |
$3,204 |
$69 |
$1,086 |
$2 |
|
Net Asset Value per Share |
$18.10 |
|
Per Share Sales Charge—3.50% of public offering price |
0.66 |
|
Per Share Offering Price to the Public |
$18.76 |
|
12b-1 Fees Incurred by the Fund
| |
|
Class |
Fiscal Year Ended
October 31,
2025 |
|
Class A |
$27,490 |
|
Class C |
$99,444 |
|
Class I |
N/A |
|
Total
Non-Expiring
Capital Loss
Available |
|
$26,224,073 |
|
NAME OF BENEFICIAL OWNER |
% OF
OUTSTANDING
SHARES OWNED |
|
FIRST TRUST SHORT DURATION HIGH INCOME FUND | |
|
CLASS A | |
|
Morgan Stanley Smith Barney LLC |
45.24% |
|
Raymond James & Associates, Inc. |
15.88% |
|
LPL Financial LLC |
11.52% |
|
Charles Schwab & Co., Inc. |
10.34% |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
6.26% |
|
CLASS C | |
|
Wells Fargo Clearing Services, LLC |
48.85% |
|
LPL Financial LLC |
17.22% |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
15.47% |
|
Charles Schwab & Co., Inc. |
5.43% |
|
Raymond James & Associates, Inc. |
5.37% |
|
CLASS I | |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
28.58% |
|
Charles Schwab & Co., Inc. |
15.10% |
|
Raymond James & Associates, Inc. |
11.15% |
|
Wells Fargo Clearing Services, LLC |
11.10% |
|
LPL Financial LLC |
10.39% |
|
First Trust Portfolios, L.P. |
6.46% |
|
AAA |
An obligation rated “AAA” has the highest rating assigned by S&P. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation is extremely strong. |
|
AA |
An obligation rated “AA” differs from the highest-rated obligations only to a small degree. The obligor’s
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is very strong. |
|
A |
An obligation rated “A” is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and
economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its
financial commitments on the obligation is still strong. |
|
BBB |
An obligation rated “BBB” exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions
or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments
on the obligation. |
|
BB |
An obligation rated “BB” is less vulnerable to nonpayment than other speculative issues. However, it faces
major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could
lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
|
B |
An obligation rated “B” is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated “BB,” but the obligor
currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. Adverse business, financial, or
economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitments
on the obligation. |
|
CCC |
An obligation rated “CCC” is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business,
financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. In the
event of adverse business, financial, or economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the capacity to
meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
|
CC |
An obligation rated “CC” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment. The “CC” rating is used when a default
has not yet occurred but S&P expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to
default. |
|
C |
An obligation rated “C” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation is expected to have
lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared with obligations that are rated higher. |
|
D |
An obligation rated “D” is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments,
the “D” rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P
believes that such payments will be made within the next five business days in the absence of a stated grace
period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or the next 30 calendar days. The “D” rating also will be
used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation
is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to 'D' if
it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring. |
|
A-1 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-1' is rated in the highest category by S&P Global Ratings. The obligor's
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is strong. Within this category, certain
obligations are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor's capacity to meet its financial
commitments on these obligations is extremely strong. |
|
A-2 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-2' is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in
circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating categories. However, the obligor's
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is satisfactory. |
|
A-3 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-3' exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic
conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken an obligor's capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation. |
|
B |
A short-term obligation rated 'B' is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The
obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing
uncertainties that could lead to the obligor's inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments. |
|
C |
A short-term obligation rated 'C' is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable
business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the
obligation. |
|
D |
A short-term obligation rated 'D' is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital
instruments, the 'D' rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due,
unless S&P Global Ratings believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period. However,
any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. The 'D' rating also
will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where default on an
obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is
lowered to 'D' if it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring. |
|
SP-1 |
Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay
debt service is given a plus (+) designation. |
|
SP-2 |
Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse financial and economic
changes over the term of the notes. |
|
SP-3 |
Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest. |
|
D |
'D' is assigned upon failure to pay the note when due, completion of a distressed debt restructuring, or the
filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual
certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. |
|
Aaa |
Obligations rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, subject to the lowest level of credit risk. |
|
Aa |
Obligations rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit risk. |
|
A |
Obligations rated A are judged to be upper-medium grade and are subject to low credit risk. |
|
Baa |
Obligations rated Baa are judged to be medium-grade and subject to moderate credit risk and as such may
possess certain speculative characteristics. |
|
Ba |
Obligations rated Ba are judged to be speculative and are subject to substantial credit risk. |
|
B |
Obligations rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk. |
|
Caa |
Obligations rated Caa are judged to be speculative of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk. |
|
Ca |
Obligations rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of
recovery of principal and interest. |
|
C |
Obligations rated C are the lowest rated and are typically in default, with little prospect for recovery of
principal or interest. |
|
P-1 |
Ratings of Prime-1 reflect a superior ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
P-2 |
Ratings of Prime-2 reflect a strong ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
P-3 |
Ratings of Prime-3 reflect an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
NP |
Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime rating categories. |
|
MIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows,
highly reliable liquidity support, or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing. |
|
MIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the
preceding group. |
|
MIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection may be narrow, and
market access for refinancing is likely to be less well-established. |
|
SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack
sufficient margins of protection. |
|
VMIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by the superior short-term
credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
VMIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Good protection is afforded by the strong short-term credit
strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
VMIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Adequate protection is afforded by the satisfactory
short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Demand features rated in this category may be
supported by a liquidity provider that does not have a sufficiently strong short-term rating or may lack the
structural or legal protections. |
|
AAA |
Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in
cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely
to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
|
AA |
Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong
capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable
events. |
|
A |
High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial
commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business
or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
|
BBB |
Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for
payment of financial commitments is considered adequate but adverse business or economic conditions are
more likely to impair this capacity. |
|
BB |
Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse
changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial flexibility exists that
supports the servicing of financial commitments. |
|
B |
Highly speculative. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety
remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is
vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment. |
|
CCC |
Substantial credit risk. Very low margin for safety. Default is a real possibility. |
|
CC |
Very high levels of credit risk. Default of some kind appears probable. |
|
C |
Near default. A default or default-like process has begun, or for a closed funding vehicle, payment capacity is
irrevocably impaired. Conditions that are indicative of a ‘C’ category rating for an issuer include:
●the issuer has entered into a grace or cure period following non-payment of a material financial obligation;
●The formal announcement by the issuer or their agent of a distressed debt exchange; and
●A closed financing vehicle where payment capacity is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to
pay interest and/or principal in full during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default is
imminent. |
|
RD |
Restricted default. ‘RD’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has experienced:
●an uncured payment default or distressed debt exchange on a bond, loan or other material financial
obligation, but
●has not entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up
procedure, and
●has not otherwise ceased operating. This would include:
- the selective payment default on a specific class or currency of debt;
- the uncured expiry of any applicable original grace period, cure period or default forbearance period
following a payment default on a bank loan, capital markets security or other material financial
obligation. |
|
D |
Default. ‘D’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has entered into bankruptcy filings,
administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up procedure or that has otherwise ceased
business and debt is still outstanding. |
|
F1 |
Highest short-term credit quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial
commitments; may have an added ‘+’ to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature. |
|
F2 |
Good short-term credit quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments. |
|
F3 |
Fair short-term credit quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate. |
|
B |
Speculative short-term credit quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus
heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions. |
|
C |
High short-term default risk. Default is a real possibility. |
|
RD |
Restricted default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments,
although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Typically applicable to entity ratings only. |
|
D |
Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a short-term obligation. |
|
AAA |
Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of credit risk. They are assigned only in
cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely
to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
|
AA |
Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low credit risk. They indicate very strong
capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable
events. |
|
A |
High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low credit risk. The capacity for payment of financial
commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business
or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
|
BBB |
Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of credit risk are currently low. The capacity for
payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are
more likely to impair this capacity. |
|
BB |
Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to credit risk, particularly in the event of adverse
changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial alternatives may be
available to allow financial commitments to be met. |
|
B |
Highly speculative. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material credit risk is present. |
|
CCC |
Substantial credit risk. ‘CCC’ ratings indicate that substantial credit risk is present. |
|
CC |
Very high levels of credit risk. ‘CC’ ratings indicate very high levels of credit risk. |
|
C |
Exceptionally high levels of credit risk. ‘C’ indicates exceptionally high levels of credit risk. |
|
AAA |
Determined to have almost no risk of loss due to credit-related events. Assigned only to the very highest
quality obligors and obligations able to survive extremely challenging economic events. |
|
AA |
Determined to have minimal risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such obligors and obligations are
deemed very high quality. |
|
A |
Determined to be of high quality with a small risk of loss due to credit-related events. Issuers and obligations
in this category are expected to weather difficult times with low credit losses. |
|
BBB |
Determined to be of medium quality with some risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such issuers and
obligations may experience credit losses during stressed environments. |
|
BB |
Determined to be of low quality with moderate risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such issuers and
obligations have fundamental weaknesses that create moderate credit risk. |
|
B |
Determined to be of very low quality with high risk of loss due to credit-related events. These issuers and
obligations contain many fundamental shortcomings that create significant credit risk. |
|
CCC |
Determined to be at substantial risk of loss due to credit-related events, near default, or in default with high
recovery expectations. |
|
CC |
Determined to be near default or in default with average recovery expectations. |
|
C |
Determined to be near default or in default with low recovery expectations. |
|
D |
KBRA defines default as occurring if:
●There is a missed interest payment, principal payment, or preferred dividend payment, as applicable, on a
rated obligation which is unlikely to be recovered.
●The rated entity files for protection from creditors, is placed into receivership, or is closed by regulators
such that a missed payment is likely to result.
●The rated entity seeks and completes a distressed exchange, where existing rated obligations are replaced
by new obligations with a diminished economic value. |
|
K1+ |
Exceptional ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K1 |
Very strong ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K2 |
Strong ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K3 |
Adequate ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
B |
Questionable ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
C |
Little ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
D |
KBRA defines default as occurring if:
●There is a missed interest payment, principal payment, or preferred dividend payment, as applicable, on a
rated obligation which is unlikely to be recovered.
●The rated entity files for protection from creditors, is placed into receivership, or is closed by regulators
such that a missed payment is likely to result.
●The rated entity seeks and completes a distressed exchange, where existing rated obligations are replaced
by new obligations with a diminished economic value. |
|
FIRST TRUST MANAGED MUNICIPAL FUND |
TICKER SYMBOL |
|
Class A |
CWAAX |
|
Class I |
CWAIX |
|
Portfolio Turnover Rate
| |
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | |
|
2025 |
2024 |
|
33% |
28% |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position
and Offices
with Trust |
Term of
Office and
Year First
Elected or
Appointed |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
Number of
Portfolios
in the First
Trust Fund
Complex
Overseen
by Trustee |
Other
Trusteeships or
Directorships
Held by
Trustee
During the
Past 5 Years |
|
TRUSTEE WHO IS AN INTERESTED PERSON OF THE TRUST | |||||
|
James A. Bowen (1)
1955 |
Chairman of the
Board and Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Chief Executive Officer, First Trust
Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios
L.P.; Chairman of the Board of Directors,
BondWave LLC (Software Development
Company) and Stonebridge Advisors LLC
(Investment Advisor) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
INDEPENDENT TRUSTEES | |||||
|
Thomas J. Driscoll
1961 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2025 |
Retired; Partner, Deloitte LLP and
Deloitte Tax LLP (1998 to January 2024) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Richard E. Erickson
1951 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Retired; Physician, Edward-Elmhurst
Medical Group (2021 to September
2023); Physician and Officer, Wheaton
Orthopedics (1990 to 2021) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec
1957 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Retired; President, ADM Investor
Services, Inc. (Futures Commission
Merchant) (2010 to July 2022) |
323 Portfolios |
Director, National
Futures
Association;
formerly, Director
of ADM Investor
Services, Inc.,
ADM Investor
Services
International,
ADMIS Hong Kong
Ltd., ADMIS
Singapore Ltd. and
Futures Industry
Association |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position
and Offices
with Trust |
Term of
Office and
Year First
Elected or
Appointed |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
Number of
Portfolios
in the First
Trust Fund
Complex
Overseen
by Trustee |
Other
Trusteeships or
Directorships
Held by
Trustee
During the
Past 5 Years |
|
INDEPENDENT TRUSTEES | |||||
|
Denise M. Keefe
1964 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2021 |
Senior Vice President, Advocate Health,
Continuing Health Division (Integrated
Healthcare System) (2023 to present);
Executive Vice President, Advocate
Aurora Health (Integrated Healthcare
System) (2018 to 2023) |
323 Portfolios |
Director and Board
Chair of Advocate
Home Health
Services, Advocate
Home Care
Products and
Advocate Hospice;
Director and Board
Chair of Aurora At
Home (since
2018); Director of
Advocate
Physician Partners
Accountable Care
Organization;
Director of RML
Long Term Acute
Care Hospitals;
Director of Senior
Helpers (2021 to
2024); and
Director of
MobileHelp (2022
to 2024) |
|
Robert F. Keith
1956 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
President, Hibs Enterprises (Financial and
Management Consulting) |
323 Portfolios |
Formerly, Director
of Trust Company
of Illinois |
|
Niel B. Nielson
1954 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Senior Advisor (2018 to present),
Managing Director and Chief Operating
Officer (2015 to 2018), Pelita Harapan
Educational Foundation (Educational
Products and Services) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Bronwyn Wright
1971 |
Trustee |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2023 |
Independent Director to a number of Irish
collective investment funds (2009 to
present); Various roles at international
affiliates of Citibank (1994 to 2009),
including Managing Director, Citibank
Europe plc and Head of Securities and
Fund Services, Citi Ireland (2007 to
2009) |
323 Portfolios |
None |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position and
Offices with Trust |
Term of Office and
Length of Service |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
|
OFFICERS OF THE TRUST | |||
|
James M. Dykas
1966 |
President and Chief
Executive Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2016 |
Managing Director and Chief Financial Officer, First
Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P.;
Chief Financial Officer, BondWave LLC (Software
Development Company) and Stonebridge Advisors
LLC (Investment Advisor) |
|
W. Scott Jardine
1960 |
Secretary and Chief Legal
Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
General Counsel, First Trust Advisors L.P. and First
Trust Portfolios L.P.; Secretary and General Counsel,
BondWave LLC; and Secretary, Stonebridge Advisors
LLC |
|
Daniel J. Lindquist
1970 |
Vice President |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Managing Director, First Trust Advisors L.P. and First
Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Kristi A. Maher
1966 |
Chief Compliance Officer
and Assistant Secretary |
●Indefinite term
●Chief Compliance
Officer since January
2011
●Assistant Secretary
since inception |
International General Counsel, First Trust Advisors
L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P., February 2025 –
present. Previously, Deputy General Counsel, First
Trust Advisors L.P. and First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Name and
Year of Birth |
Position and
Offices with Trust |
Term of Office and
Length of Service |
Principal Occupations
During Past 5 Years |
|
Derek D. Maltbie
1972 |
Treasurer, Chief Financial
Officer and Chief
Accounting Officer |
●Indefinite term
●Since 2023 |
Senior Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P., July 2021 – present.
Previously, Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P.
and First Trust Portfolios L.P., 2014 –2021. |
|
Roger F. Testin
1966 |
Vice President |
●Indefinite term
●Since inception |
Senior Vice President, First Trust Advisors L.P. and
First Trust Portfolios L.P. |
|
Name of Trustee |
Total Compensation from
the Fund (1)
|
Total Compensation from
the First Trust Fund Complex (2)
|
|
Thomas J. Driscoll(3) |
$728 |
$324,786 |
|
Richard E. Erickson |
$2,958 |
$669,132 |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec |
$2,964 |
$688,432 |
|
Denise M. Keefe |
$2,953 |
$657,315 |
|
Robert F. Keith |
$2,959 |
$676,054 |
|
Niel B. Nielson |
$2,955 |
$660,482 |
|
Bronwyn Wright |
$3,021 |
$644,703 |
|
Trustee |
Dollar Range of Equity
Securities in the Fund
(Number of Shares
Held) |
Aggregate Dollar
Range of Equity
Securities in All
Registered Investment
Companies Overseen
by Trustee in the First
Trust Fund Complex |
|
Interested Trustee | ||
|
James A. Bowen |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Independent Trustees | ||
|
Thomas J. Driscoll |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Richard E. Erickson |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Thomas R. Kadlec |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Denise M. Keefe |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Robert F. Keith |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Niel B. Nielson |
None |
Over $100,000 |
|
Bronwyn Wright |
None |
None |
|
Amount of Management Fees
(Net of Fee Waivers and Expense Reimbursements by
First Trust)
|
Amount of Fees Waived
and Expenses Reimbursed By First Trust
| ||||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, |
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$157,035 |
$150,489 |
$141,998 |
$198,492 |
$219,279 |
$265,894 |
|
Name |
Position with
First Trust |
Length of
Service with
First Trust |
Principal Occupation During Past Five Years |
|
Johnathan N. Wilhelm |
Senior Vice President and
Senior Portfolio Manager |
Since 2013 |
Senior Vice President and Senior Portfolio Manager
(September 2013 to present), First Trust Advisors L.P. |
|
Thomas Byron |
Senior Vice President and
Senior Portfolio Manager |
Since March 2022 |
Senior Vice President and Senior Portfolio Manager,
First Trust Advisors L.P. (March 2022 to present); Director
and Portfolio Manager, BMO Global Asset Management
(2016-2022) |
|
Shawn P. O’Leary |
Senior Vice President and
Senior Portfolio Manager |
Since April 2024 |
Senior Vice President and Senior Portfolio Manager
First Trust Portfolios L.P. (April 2024 to present); Portfolio
Manager, Nuveen Investments (2018-2024), Analyst,
Nuveen Investments (2009-2018) |
|
Portfolio Manager |
Registered
Investment
Companies
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Pooled
Investment
Vehicles
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Accounts
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Registered
Investment
Companies
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Pooled
Investment
Vehicles
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
Other
Accounts
With
Performance
Fees
Number of
Accounts
($ Assets in
Thousands) |
|
Johnathan N. Wilhelm |
7 ($3,705,791) |
N/A |
100 ($242,641) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Tom Byron |
7 ($3,705,791) |
N/A |
100 ($242,641) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Shawn P. O’Leary |
7 ($3,705,791) |
N/A |
100 ($242,641) |
N/A |
N/A |
N/A |
|
Aggregate Amount of Brokerage Commissions
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$110 |
$325 |
$366 |
|
Aggregate Amount Paid to Administrator
| ||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$51,561 |
$53,949 |
$57,474 |
|
Underwriting Commissions
Retained by Distributor
|
Compensation on Redemptions
and Repurchases
| ||||
|
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, |
Fiscal Year Ended October 31, | ||||
|
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
2025 |
2024 |
2023 |
|
$0 |
$0 |
$0 |
$0 |
$0 |
$0 |
|
Net Asset Value per Share |
$20.45 |
|
Per Share Sales Charge—3.50% of public offering price |
0.73 |
|
Per Share Offering Price to the Public |
$21.19 |
|
12b-1 Fees Incurred by the Fund
| |
|
Class |
Fiscal Year Ended
October 31,
2025 |
|
Class A |
$816 |
|
Class I |
N/A |
|
Total
Non-Expiring
Capital Loss
Available |
|
$854,912 |
|
NAME OF BENEFICIAL OWNER |
% OF
OUTSTANDING
SHARES OWNED |
|
FIRST TRUST MANAGED MUNICIPAL FUND | |
|
CLASS A | |
|
First Trust Portfolios, L.P. |
100.00% |
|
CLASS I | |
|
Charles Schwab & Co., Inc. |
91.19% |
|
National Financial Services LLC |
8.61% |
|
AAA |
An obligation rated “AAA” has the highest rating assigned by S&P. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation is extremely strong. |
|
AA |
An obligation rated “AA” differs from the highest-rated obligations only to a small degree. The obligor’s
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is very strong. |
|
A |
An obligation rated “A” is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and
economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its
financial commitments on the obligation is still strong. |
|
BBB |
An obligation rated “BBB” exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions
or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments
on the obligation. |
|
BB |
An obligation rated “BB” is less vulnerable to nonpayment than other speculative issues. However, it faces
major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could
lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
|
B |
An obligation rated “B” is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated “BB,” but the obligor
currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. Adverse business, financial, or
economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitments
on the obligation. |
|
CCC |
An obligation rated “CCC” is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business,
financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. In the
event of adverse business, financial, or economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the capacity to
meet its financial commitments on the obligation. |
|
CC |
An obligation rated “CC” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment. The “CC” rating is used when a default
has not yet occurred but S&P expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to
default. |
|
C |
An obligation rated “C” is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation is expected to have
lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared with obligations that are rated higher. |
|
D |
An obligation rated “D” is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments,
the “D” rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P
believes that such payments will be made within the next five business days in the absence of a stated grace
period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or the next 30 calendar days. The “D” rating also will be
used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation
is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to 'D' if
it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring. |
|
A-1 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-1' is rated in the highest category by S&P Global Ratings. The obligor's
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is strong. Within this category, certain
obligations are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor's capacity to meet its financial
commitments on these obligations is extremely strong. |
|
A-2 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-2' is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in
circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating categories. However, the obligor's
capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is satisfactory. |
|
A-3 |
A short-term obligation rated 'A-3' exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic
conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken an obligor's capacity to meet its financial
commitments on the obligation. |
|
B |
A short-term obligation rated 'B' is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The
obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing
uncertainties that could lead to the obligor's inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments. |
|
C |
A short-term obligation rated 'C' is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable
business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the
obligation. |
|
D |
A short-term obligation rated 'D' is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital
instruments, the 'D' rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due,
unless S&P Global Ratings believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period. However,
any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. The 'D' rating also
will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where default on an
obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is
lowered to 'D' if it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring. |
|
SP-1 |
Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay
debt service is given a plus (+) designation. |
|
SP-2 |
Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse financial and economic
changes over the term of the notes. |
|
SP-3 |
Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest. |
|
D |
'D' is assigned upon failure to pay the note when due, completion of a distressed debt restructuring, or the
filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual
certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. |
|
Aaa |
Obligations rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, subject to the lowest level of credit risk. |
|
Aa |
Obligations rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit risk. |
|
A |
Obligations rated A are judged to be upper-medium grade and are subject to low credit risk. |
|
Baa |
Obligations rated Baa are judged to be medium-grade and subject to moderate credit risk and as such may
possess certain speculative characteristics. |
|
Ba |
Obligations rated Ba are judged to be speculative and are subject to substantial credit risk. |
|
B |
Obligations rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk. |
|
Caa |
Obligations rated Caa are judged to be speculative of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk. |
|
Ca |
Obligations rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of
recovery of principal and interest. |
|
C |
Obligations rated C are the lowest rated and are typically in default, with little prospect for recovery of
principal or interest. |
|
P-1 |
Ratings of Prime-1 reflect a superior ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
P-2 |
Ratings of Prime-2 reflect a strong ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
P-3 |
Ratings of Prime-3 reflect an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations. |
|
NP |
Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime rating categories. |
|
MIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows,
highly reliable liquidity support, or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing. |
|
MIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the
preceding group. |
|
MIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection may be narrow, and
market access for refinancing is likely to be less well-established. |
|
SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack
sufficient margins of protection. |
|
VMIG 1 |
This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by the superior short-term
credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
VMIG 2 |
This designation denotes strong credit quality. Good protection is afforded by the strong short-term credit
strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
VMIG 3 |
This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Adequate protection is afforded by the satisfactory
short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections. |
|
SG |
This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Demand features rated in this category may be
supported by a liquidity provider that does not have a sufficiently strong short-term rating or may lack the
structural or legal protections. |
|
AAA |
Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in
cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely
to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
|
AA |
Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong
capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable
events. |
|
A |
High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial
commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business
or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
|
BBB |
Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for
payment of financial commitments is considered adequate but adverse business or economic conditions are
more likely to impair this capacity. |
|
BB |
Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse
changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial flexibility exists that
supports the servicing of financial commitments. |
|
B |
Highly speculative. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety
remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is
vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment. |
|
CCC |
Substantial credit risk. Very low margin for safety. Default is a real possibility. |
|
CC |
Very high levels of credit risk. Default of some kind appears probable. |
|
C |
Near default. A default or default-like process has begun, or for a closed funding vehicle, payment capacity is
irrevocably impaired. Conditions that are indicative of a ‘C’ category rating for an issuer include:
●the issuer has entered into a grace or cure period following non-payment of a material financial obligation;
●The formal announcement by the issuer or their agent of a distressed debt exchange; and
●A closed financing vehicle where payment capacity is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to
pay interest and/or principal in full during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default is
imminent. |
|
RD |
Restricted default. ‘RD’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has experienced:
●an uncured payment default or distressed debt exchange on a bond, loan or other material financial
obligation, but
●has not entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up
procedure, and
●has not otherwise ceased operating. This would include:
- the selective payment default on a specific class or currency of debt;
- the uncured expiry of any applicable original grace period, cure period or default forbearance period
following a payment default on a bank loan, capital markets security or other material financial
obligation. |
|
D |
Default. ‘D’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has entered into bankruptcy filings,
administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up procedure or that has otherwise ceased
business and debt is still outstanding. |
|
F1 |
Highest short-term credit quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial
commitments; may have an added ‘+’ to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature. |
|
F2 |
Good short-term credit quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments. |
|
F3 |
Fair short-term credit quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate. |
|
B |
Speculative short-term credit quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus
heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions. |
|
C |
High short-term default risk. Default is a real possibility. |
|
RD |
Restricted default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments,
although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Typically applicable to entity ratings only. |
|
D |
Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a short-term obligation. |
|
AAA |
Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of credit risk. They are assigned only in
cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely
to be adversely affected by foreseeable events. |
|
AA |
Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low credit risk. They indicate very strong
capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable
events. |
|
A |
High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low credit risk. The capacity for payment of financial
commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business
or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings. |
|
BBB |
Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of credit risk are currently low. The capacity for
payment of financial commitments is considered adequate, but adverse business or economic conditions are
more likely to impair this capacity. |
|
BB |
Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to credit risk, particularly in the event of adverse
changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial alternatives may be
available to allow financial commitments to be met. |
|
B |
Highly speculative. ‘B’ ratings indicate that material credit risk is present. |
|
CCC |
Substantial credit risk. ‘CCC’ ratings indicate that substantial credit risk is present. |
|
CC |
Very high levels of credit risk. ‘CC’ ratings indicate very high levels of credit risk. |
|
C |
Exceptionally high levels of credit risk. ‘C’ indicates exceptionally high levels of credit risk. |
|
AAA |
Determined to have almost no risk of loss due to credit-related events. Assigned only to the very highest
quality obligors and obligations able to survive extremely challenging economic events. |
|
AA |
Determined to have minimal risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such obligors and obligations are
deemed very high quality. |
|
A |
Determined to be of high quality with a small risk of loss due to credit-related events. Issuers and obligations
in this category are expected to weather difficult times with low credit losses. |
|
BBB |
Determined to be of medium quality with some risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such issuers and
obligations may experience credit losses during stressed environments. |
|
BB |
Determined to be of low quality with moderate risk of loss due to credit-related events. Such issuers and
obligations have fundamental weaknesses that create moderate credit risk. |
|
B |
Determined to be of very low quality with high risk of loss due to credit-related events. These issuers and
obligations contain many fundamental shortcomings that create significant credit risk. |
|
CCC |
Determined to be at substantial risk of loss due to credit-related events, near default, or in default with high
recovery expectations. |
|
CC |
Determined to be near default or in default with average recovery expectations. |
|
C |
Determined to be near default or in default with low recovery expectations. |
|
D |
KBRA defines default as occurring if:
●There is a missed interest payment, principal payment, or preferred dividend payment, as applicable, on a
rated obligation which is unlikely to be recovered.
●The rated entity files for protection from creditors, is placed into receivership, or is closed by regulators
such that a missed payment is likely to result.
●The rated entity seeks and completes a distressed exchange, where existing rated obligations are replaced
by new obligations with a diminished economic value. |
|
K1+ |
Exceptional ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K1 |
Very strong ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K2 |
Strong ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
K3 |
Adequate ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
B |
Questionable ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
C |
Little ability to meet short-term obligations. |
|
D |
KBRA defines default as occurring if:
●There is a missed interest payment, principal payment, or preferred dividend payment, as applicable, on a
rated obligation which is unlikely to be recovered.
●The rated entity files for protection from creditors, is placed into receivership, or is closed by regulators
such that a missed payment is likely to result.
●The rated entity seeks and completes a distressed exchange, where existing rated obligations are replaced
by new obligations with a diminished economic value. |
First Trust Series Fund
Part C – Other Information
| Item 28. | Exhibits |
Exhibit No. Description
| (a) | (1) Declaration of Trust of the Registrant is incorporated by reference to the initial registration statement filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on August 10, 2010. |
| (b) | By-Laws of the Registrant, is incorporated by reference to the Pre-Effective Amendment No. 1 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on December 23, 2010. |
| (d) | (1) Investment Management Agreement, is incorporated by reference to the Pre-Effective Amendment No. 1 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on December 23, 2010. |
| (2) Amended Exhibit A to Distribution Agreement, is incorporated by reference to the Post-Effective Amendment No. 66 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on October 1, 2024. |
| (f) | Not Applicable. |
| (4) Amended Exhibit A to Expense Reimbursement, Fee Waiver and Recovery Agreement, is filed herewith. |
| (11) Rule 12d1-4 Fund of Funds Investment Agreement, is incorporated by reference to the Post-Effective Amendment No. 51 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on February 28, 2022. |
| (i) | Not Applicable. |
| (j) | Consent of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm is filed herewith. |
| (k) | Not Applicable. |
| (l) | Not Applicable. |
| (m) | (1) 12b 1 Distribution and Service Plan, is incorporated by reference to the Pre-Effective Amendment No. 1 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on December 23, 2010. |
| (3) Form of Amended 12b 1 Distribution and Service Plan is incorporated by reference to the Post-Effective Amendment No. 66 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on October 1, 2024. |
| (2) Multiple Class Plan Adopted Pursuant to Rule 18f-3, is incorporated by reference to the Post-Effective Amendment No. 60 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on June 13, 2022. |
| (3) Multiple Class Plan Adopted Pursuant to Rule 18f-3, is incorporated by reference to the Post-Effective Amendment No. 66 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on October 1, 2024. |
| (o) | Not Applicable. |
| (3) Stonebridge Advisors LLC Code of Ethics is incorporated by reference to the Post-Effective Amendment No. 62 filed on Form N-1A (File No. 333-168727) for Registrant on February 28, 2024. |
__________________
| Item 29. | Persons Controlled By or Under Common Control with Registrant |
Not Applicable.
| Item 30. | Indemnification |
Section 9.5 of the Registrant’s Declaration of Trust provides as follows:
Section 9.5. Indemnification and Advancement of Expenses. Subject to the exceptions and limitations contained in this Section 9.5, every person who is, or has been, a Trustee, officer, or employee of the Trust, including persons who serve at the request of the Trust as directors, trustees, officers, employees or agents of another organization in which the Trust has an interest as a shareholder, creditor or otherwise (hereinafter referred to as a "Covered Person"), shall be indemnified by the Trust to the fullest extent permitted by law against liability and against all expenses reasonably incurred or paid by him or in connection with any claim, action, suit or proceeding in which he becomes involved as a party or otherwise by virtue of his being or having been such a Trustee, director, officer, employee or agent and against amounts paid or incurred by him in settlement thereof.
No indemnification shall be provided hereunder to a Covered Person to the extent such indemnification is prohibited by applicable federal law.
The rights of indemnification herein provided may be insured against by policies maintained by the Trust, shall be severable, shall not affect any other rights to which any Covered Person may now or hereafter be entitled, shall continue as to a person who has ceased to be such a Covered Person and shall inure to the benefit of the heirs, executors and administrators of such a person.
Subject to applicable federal law, expenses of preparation and presentation of a defense to any claim, action, suit or proceeding subject to a claim for indemnification under this Section 9.5 shall be advanced by the Trust prior to final disposition thereof upon receipt of an undertaking by or on behalf of the recipient to repay such amount if it is ultimately determined that he is not entitled to indemnification under this Section 9.5.
To the extent that any determination is required to be made as to whether a Covered Person engaged in conduct for which indemnification is not provided as described herein, or as to whether there is reason to believe that a Covered Person ultimately will be found entitled to indemnification, the Person or Persons making the determination shall afford the Covered Person a rebuttable presumption that the Covered Person has not engaged in such conduct and that there is reason to believe that the Covered Person ultimately will be found entitled to indemnification.
As used in this Section 9.5, the words "claim," "action," "suit" or "proceeding" shall apply to all claims, demands, actions, suits, investigations, regulatory inquiries, proceedings or any other occurrence of a similar nature, whether actual or threatened and whether civil, criminal, administrative or other, including appeals, and the words "liability" and "expenses" shall include without limitation, attorneys' fees, costs, judgments, amounts paid in settlement, fines, penalties and other liabilities.
| Item 31. | Business and Other Connections of the Investment Adviser |
First Trust Advisors L.P. (“First Trust”), investment adviser to the Registrant, serves as adviser or sub-adviser to various other open-end and closed-end management investment companies and is the portfolio supervisor of certain unit investment trusts. The principal business of certain of First Trust’s principal executive officers involves various activities in connection with the family of unit investment trusts sponsored by First Trust Portfolios L.P. (“FTP”). The principal address for all these investment companies, First Trust, FTP and the persons below is 120 East Liberty Drive, Suite 400, Wheaton, Illinois 60187.
A description of any business, profession, vocation or employment of a substantial nature in which the officers of First Trust who serve as officers or trustees of the Registrant have engaged during the last two years for his or her account or in the capacity of director, officer, employee, partner or trustee appears under “Management of the Fund” in the Statement of Additional Information. Such information for the remaining senior officers of First Trust appears below:
| Name and Position with First Trust | Employment During Past Two Years |
| Andrew S. Roggensack, President | Managing Director and President, First Trust |
| R. Scott Hall, Managing Director | Managing Director, First Trust |
| David G. McGarel, Chief Investment Officer, Chief Operating Officer and Managing Director | Managing Director (since July 2012); Senior Vice President, First Trust |
| Kelly C. Dehler, Chief Compliance Office | Assistant General Counsel, First Trust |
| Brian Wesbury, Chief Economist and Senior Vice President | Chief Economist and Senior Vice President, First Trust |
| Item 32. | Principal Underwriters |
(a) FTP serves as principal underwriter of the shares of the Registrant, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund II, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund III, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund IV, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund V, First Trust Exchange Traded Fund VI, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund VII, First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund VIII, First Trust Exchange-Traded AlphaDEX® Fund, First Trust Exchange-Traded AlphaDEX® Fund II and First Trust Variable Insurance Trust. FTP serves as principal underwriter and depositor of the following investment companies registered as unit investment trusts: the First Trust Combined Series, FT Series (formerly known as the First Trust Special Situations Trust), the First Trust Insured Corporate Trust, the First Trust of Insured Municipal Bonds and the First Trust GNMA.
(b) Positions and Offices with Underwriter.
| Name
and Principal Business Address* |
Positions
and Offices with Underwriter |
Positions
and Offices with Fund |
| The Charger Corporation | General Partner | None |
| Grace Partners of DuPage L.P. | Limited Partner | None |
| James A. Bowen | Chief Executive Officer and Managing Director | Trustee and Chairman of the Board |
| James M. Dykas | Chief Financial Officer and Managing Director | President and Chief Executive Officer |
| Frank L. Fichera | Managing Director | None |
| R. Scott Hall | Managing Director | None |
| W. Scott Jardine | General Counsel, Secretary and Managing Director | Secretary |
| Daniel J. Lindquist | Managing Director | Vice President |
| David G. McGarel | Chief Investment Officer, Chief Operating Officer and Managing Director | None |
| Richard A. Olson | Managing Director | None |
| Marisa Bowen | Managing Director | None |
| Andrew S. Roggensack | President and Managing Director | None |
| Kristi A. Maher | International General Counsel | Chief Compliance Officer and Assistant Secretary |
|
* All addresses are |
(c) Not Applicable
| Item 33. | Location of Accounts and Records |
First Trust, 120 East Liberty Drive, Suite 400, Wheaton, Illinois 60187, maintains the Registrant’s organizational documents, minutes of meetings, contracts of the Registrant and all advisory material of the investment adviser.
The Bank of New York Mellon (“BNY”) maintains all general and subsidiary ledgers, journals, trial balances, records of all portfolio purchases and sales, and all other requirement records not maintained by First Trust.
BNY also maintains all the required records in its capacity as transfer, accounting, dividend payment and interest holder service agent for the Registrant.
| Item 34. | Management Services |
Not Applicable.
| Item 35. | Undertakings |
Not Applicable.
Signatures
Pursuant to the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 and the Investment Company Act of 1940, the Registrant certifies that it meets all of the requirements for effectiveness of this Registration Statement under Rule 485(b) under the Securities Act of 1933 and has duly caused this Registration Statement to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, duly authorized in the City of Wheaton, and State of Illinois, on the 27th day of February, 2026.
| First Trust Series Fund | ||
| By: | /s/ James M. Dykas | |
| James M. Dykas, President and Chief Executive Officer | ||
Pursuant to the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933, this Registration Statement has been signed below by the following persons in the capacities and on the date indicated:
| Signature | Title | Date | |
| /s/ James M. Dykas | President and Chief Executive Officer |
February 27, 2026 | |
| James M. Dykas | |||
| /s/ Derek D. Maltbie | Treasurer, Chief Financial Officer and Chief Accounting Officer |
February 27, 2026 | |
| Derek D. Maltbie | |||
| James A. Bowen* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | |||
| Thomas J. Driscoll* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | |||
| Richard E. Erickson* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | |||
| Thomas R. Kadlec* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | |||
| Denise M. Keefe* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | |||
| Robert F. Keith* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | By: | /s/ W. Scott Jardine | |
| Niel B. Nielson* | ) Trustee ) |
W. Scott Jardine Attorney-In-Fact | |
| ) | February 27, 2026 | ||
| Bronwyn Wright* | ) Trustee ) |
||
| ) | |||
| * | Original powers of attorney dated December 31, 2015 or November 1, 2021 or September 11, 2023 or August 20, 2025, authorizing James A. Bowen, W. Scott Jardine, James M. Dykas, Eric F. Fess and Kristi A. Maher to execute Registrant's Registration Statement, and Amendments thereto, for each of the trustees of the Registrant on whose behalf this Registration Statement is filed, were previously executed, filed as an exhibit and are incorporated by reference herein. |
Index to Exhibits
| (h)(4) | Amended Exhibit A to Expense Reimbursement, Fee Waiver and Recovery Agreement. |
| (j) | Consent of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm. |